Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "p...

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

I broke up with my boyfriend because he wasn’t transparent about his past, it hurts me and he doesn’t care. I told him in the beginning of our relationship that it was a deal breaker for me what do I do?

You'll usually find your answer there.

There's no rule.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

Does the Hamas charter specifically call for the death of all Jews and the destruction of Israel?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Why do Trump supporters believe Trump should deport the immigrants? These people you call "illegal immigrants" have lived here for many years, they have houses, jobs, how can you think they will just go back to their country, where they have nothing?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

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